|
-
<< Back to editing
-
Previous version by
-
-
<< Older
-
Newer >>
-
Revert to this one
search results
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
/index.php?action=ajax&rs=GDMgetPage&rsargs[]=laissezfaire33_4.pdf&rsargs[]=0
__________________________________________________________________
William
Barnett
II
and
Walter
E
.
Block
Rejoinder
to
Curott
In
this
rejoinder
to
Curott
we
have
decided
to
adopt
the
approach
utilized
by
Hazlitt
(
1983
)
in
his
refutation
of
Keynes
(
1936
)—
a
page
by
page
,
sometimes
paragraph
by
paragraph
,
and
even
line
by
line
refutation
—
although
we
have
not
been
nearly
as
thorough
as
was
Hazlitt
.
States
Curott
:
Barnett
and
Block
(
2010
)
prove
beyond
any
reasonable
doubt
that
money
trades
in
every
market
and
therefore
,
strictly
speaking
,
has
no
market
price
of
its
own
.
And
so
every
time
I
used
the
phrase
“
objective
exchange
price
”
in
my
comment
(
Curott
,
2010a
)
I
should
have
used
the
phrase
“
purchasing
power
”
instead
(
Curott
,
2010b
,
12
).
About
which
,
a
few
comments
.
“
Strictly
speaking
”
is
the
way
of
science
and
avoids
ambiguity
.
Let
us
take
an
example
from
a
different
context
.
“
Hot
”
has
no
scientific
meaning
.
Although
many
(
most
?)
physicists
would
agree
that
it
is
hot
outside
in
New
Orleans
today
(
August
3
,
2010
),
they
would
not
be
speaking
qua
physicists
.
No
,
in
their
roles
as
scientists
they
would
measure
the
thermodynamic
temperature
in
the
IS
base
unit
kelvin
(
K
)
or
,
perhaps
,
in
the
IS
derived
quantity
,
Celsius
temperature
(º
C
).
More
important
for
our
purpose
,
the
use
of
“
purchasing
power
,”
like
“
hot
,”
does
not
solve
the
problem
.
It
,
too
,
is
nonscientific
.
No
one
knows
what
the
purchasing
power
of
any
money
is
.
It
is
,
pre-
sumably
,
some
(
subjectively
)
weighted
average
of
a
(
subjectively
)
chosen
basket
of
goods
.
But
which
goods
?
The
ones
utilized
by
the
CPI
,
CPE
,
PPI
,
etc
?
Does
this
include
newly
produced
goods
only
?
What
of
financial
assets
and
pre-existing
real
goods
such
as
office
buildings
and
machinery
,
etc
.?
For
two
individuals
in
a
Wal-Mart
the
(
asking
)
price
of
the
various
goods
is
an
identical
and
objective
amount
of
money
;
but
for
different
such
individuals
,
with
different
values
,
each
with
$
200
in
cash
,
the
purchasing
power
of
that
$
200
will
be
different
.
That
is
,
unlike
money
prices
that
are
objective
,
purchasing
power
is
subjective
.
In
his
first
footnote
,
our
author
states
as
follows
:
“
The
correct
choice
of
words
is
important
for
clearly
expressing
ideas
.
The
conventional
notion
of
a
market
price
is
an
exchange
ratio
of
a
good
in
terms
of
money
.
Barnett
and
Block
(
2010
)
want
to
reserve
the
word
‘
price
’
solely
for
money
prices
.”
Well
,
yes
we
do
,
we
but
see
nothing
improper
in
that
,
as
Curott
implies
.
In
fact
,
in
a
monetary
economy
the
only
prices
that
matter
save
for
a
tiny
number
of
barter
transactions
are
money
prices
(
Mises
,
1998
,
Chap
.
11
;
Rothbard
,
2004
,
Chap
.
4
).
Curott
continues
:
“
And
since
there
obviously
cannot
be
a
price
for
any
particular
money
enumerated
in
the
same
money
,
the
phrase
‘
objective
exchange
price
’
of
money
is
a
poor
choice
of
words
to
denote
the
purchasing
power
of
money
because
it
seems
to
imply
that
the
objec-
Laissez-Faire
,
No
.
33
(
Sept
2010
):
17-26
/index.php?action=ajax&rs=GDMgetPage&rsargs[]=laissezfaire33_4.pdf&rsargs[]=1
__________________________________________________________________
tive
exchange
price
is
a
money
price
.
However
,
it
is
important
to
note
that
supply
and
demand
analysis
is
amenable
to
prices
that
are
not
money
prices
.”
This
is
undoubtedly
true
in
a
barter
economy
,
and
Curott
earns
kudos
for
making
this
discernment
.
However
,
it
is
not
at
all
the
case
in
a
monetary
economy
.
Thus
,
the
phrase
“
objective
exchange
price
”
is
not
“
a
poor
choice
of
words
.”
Rather
,
it
is
an
incorrect
one
.
Curott
now
launches
into
an
analysis
of
the
business
cycle
.
He
says
:
“
The
fact
that
money
is
traded
in
all
markets
is
of
central
importance
in
macroeconomics
,
as
I
discuss
below
,
because
it
suggests
that
monetary
disequilibrium
can
cause
general
unemployment
”
(
p
.
12
).
1
Again
,
he
earns
points
for
his
insight
:
monetary
disequilibrium
can
indeed
bring
about
the
(
Austrian
)
business
cycle
.
But
that
claim
is
subject
to
three
caveats
.
The
disequilibrium
must
consist
of
excess
supplies
,
not
excess
demands
;
the
excess
supplies
must
arise
from
increases
in
the
supplies
of
,
not
decreases
in
the
demands
for
,
money
;
and
,
the
new
money
must
be
injected
into
the
credit
markets
—
it
must
be
lent
,
not
spent
,
into
existence
(
Hayek
,
1931
;
Mises
,
1912
).
Curott
’
s
next
attempt
at
setting
us
straight
is
as
follows
:
“
Barnett
and
Block
’
s
(
2009
,
2010
)
primary
conclusion
,
that
it
is
illegitimate
to
speak
of
a
single
market
for
money
,
is
derived
from
the
premise
that
money
has
a
price
expressed
in
different
units
for
each
market
that
it
is
traded
in
.
While
the
premise
is
true
,
the
conclusion
they
draw
from
it
does
not
follow
.
Just
because
money
has
no
market
price
of
its
own
does
not
mean
that
it
has
no
market
purchasing
power
of
its
own
”
(
p
.
12
).
Were
Curott
to
word
his
critique
more
appropriately
he
might
have
said
,
“
Just
because
money
has
no
ONE
market
price
of
its
own
does
not
mean
that
it
has
no
ONE
market
purchasing
power
of
its
own
.”
But
of
course
it
does
mean
precisely
that
.
Indeed
,
we
did
not
at
all
assert
that
money
has
no
purchasing
power
.
Very
much
to
the
contrary
,
if
an
item
has
no
purchasing
power
,
it
can
hardly
constitute
a
money
in
the
first
place
.
Curott
’
s
Note
2
furnishes
us
with
more
ammunition
,
and
we
quote
from
it
:
Barnett
and
Block
’
s
conclusion
that
there
is
no
aggregate
supply
and
demand
for
money
is
based
on
a
confusion
of
the
two
meanings
of
the
word
“
market
.”
Sometimes
the
word
market
is
used
in
an
ordinary
language
sense
to
denote
a
particular
sector
of
the
economy
,
such
as
the
market
for
pork
bellies
or
the
market
for
haircuts
.
Other
times
the
word
market
is
used
in
a
technical
economics
sense
to
denote
the
operation
of
supply
and
demand
among
an
aggregate
of
individuals
.
While
money
trades
in
all
sectors
of
the
economy
,
it
has
a
single
aggregate
supply
and
demand
.
But
if
money
has
a
single
aggregate
supply
and
demand
,
it
must
have
a
single
“
purchasing
power
.”
We
ask
,
and
not
at
all
for
the
first
time
,
2
what
is
it
?
Our
papers
were
an
attempt
to
move
economics
along
in
a
more
scientific
direction
.
Curott
,
unfortunately
,
appears
as
if
he
wants
to
move
us
backward
.
Keynes
(
1936
)
also
used
the
concept
of
aggregate
demand
and
supply
,
though
his
meaning
was
somewhat
different
.
Curott
’
s
type
of
analysis
mimics
the
Keynesian
type
of
supply
and
demand
for
money
where
“
the
2
If
there
was
one
question
we
asked
Curott
to
1
Hereafter
all
page
references
,
unless
other-
answer
in
Barnett
and
Block
(
2010
)
it
was
wise
specified
,
are
to
Curott
(
2010b
).
precisely
this
one
.
__________________________________________________________________
Laissez-Faire
18
/index.php?action=ajax&rs=GDMgetPage&rsargs[]=laissezfaire33_4.pdf&rsargs[]=2
__________________________________________________________________
price
of
money
”
is
,
similarly
to
Curott
’
s
,
yet
another
unscientific
concept
,
i
.
e
.,
“
the
interest
rate
.”
Curott
continues
:
“
Thus
there
is
no
single
market
for
money
in
the
first
sense
of
the
word
,
but
there
is
a
single
market
for
money
in
the
second
,
technical
economics
sense
”
(
p
.
12
,
Note
2
).
Again
,
we
ask
,
if
there
is
a
“
second
,
technical
economics
sense
”
of
“
a
single
market
for
money
,”
what
is
the
price
of
money
therein
,
or
,
if
Curott
prefers
,
what
is
“
the
purchasing
power
of
money
”
in
that
market
?
We
do
not
at
all
go
so
far
as
to
characterize
this
as
“
unscientific
nonsense
.”
On
the
other
hand
,
we
are
exceedingly
disappointed
that
Curott
has
not
seen
fit
to
respond
to
the
question
we
posed
to
him
a
number
of
times
in
Barnett
and
Block
(
2010
).
In
Curott
’
s
next
sally
,
he
relies
on
the
concept
of
the
demand
for
money
in
the
aggregate
.
Unfortunately
the
concept
is
unscientific
because
of
,
inter
alia
,
its
ambiguity
.
Nothing
daunted
,
our
author
defines
this
aggregate
demand
as
“
the
market
summation
of
individual
demands
to
hold
a
given
quantity
of
money
at
different
levels
of
the
purchasing
power
of
money
,
ceteris
paribus
”
(
p
.
13
).
We
hate
to
throw
cold
water
on
this
concept
,
but
our
dissatisfaction
with
it
is
expressed
as
a
query
:
How
is
it
measured
?
Sometimes
,
the
“
devil
is
in
the
details
,”
and
here
in
the
present
case
,
unfortunately
,
no
answer
to
this
crucial
question
is
forthcoming
.
Whereupon
Curott
mentions
“
the
market
purchasing
power
of
money
”
without
explaining
it
,
and
certainly
not
indicating
how
much
can
be
purchased
with
a
given
amount
of
money
.
Our
author
,
unfortunately
,
is
a
creative
scholar
,
in
that
he
is
continually
inventing
new
phrases
without
deigning
to
explain
them
.
To
wit
,
in
this
case
he
says
:
“
For
the
reasons
explained
in
my
comment
(
Curott
,
2010a
),
as
long
as
money
has
an
anchored
value
that
isn
’
t
circular
,
the
market
purchasing
power
of
money
is
determined
by
supply
and
demand
”
(
p
.
13
).
But
what
,
pray
tell
,
is
that
anchored
value
?
And
to
what
is
it
anchored
?
Economics
would
be
better
off
if
people
stated
precisely
what
they
mean
without
the
use
of
such
undefined
and
uncertain
metaphors
.
This
also
leaves
open
the
question
of
supply
and
demand
for
what
?
Of
course
,
we
know
that
Curott
means
money
;
but
isn
’
t
one
of
the
biggest
“
markets
for
money
”
the
one
where
labor
is
traded
for
money
?
Don
’
t
most
people
purchase
most
of
the
money
they
acquire
by
selling
their
labor
?
So
,
because
,
as
Curott
says
,
this
aggregate
demand
is
“
the
market
summation
of
individual
demands
to
hold
a
given
quantity
of
money
at
different
levels
of
the
purchasing
power
of
money
,”
shouldn
’
t
this
summation
include
the
individuals
’
demands
for
money
in
the
labor
markets
(
i
.
e
.,
their
supplies
of
labor
)?
Perhaps
more
important
,
the
demands
for
money
in
financial
markets
of
all
types
exceed
that
of
the
demands
for
money
in
non-financial
markets
of
all
types
,
if
for
no
other
reason
than
because
of
the
immense
volume
of
such
transactions
.
And
yet
,
the
weighted-average
prices
of
labor
and
of
financial
transactions
are
not
to
our
knowledge
included
in
any
calculations
of
the
demands
for
,
or
supplies
of
,
money
.
That
is
,
should
not
these
demands
for
and
supplies
of
money
be
included
in
the
“
market
summation
”
to
arrive
at
“
the
aggregate
demand
for
money
”
and
“
the
aggregate
supply
of
money
?”
Moreover
,
if
these
demands
and
supplies
are
to
be
summed
“
at
different
levels
of
purchasing
power
,”
how
are
these
different
levels
arrived
at
in
the
first
place
?
Standard
economic
analysis
concludes
that
it
is
the
interaction
of
the
supply
of
,
and
demand
for
,
a
good
that
determines
its
price
.
When
considering
“
the
__________________________________________________________________
Laissez-Faire
19
/index.php?action=ajax&rs=GDMgetPage&rsargs[]=laissezfaire33_4.pdf&rsargs[]=3
__________________________________________________________________
demand
for
,
and
the
supply
of
,
money
,”
the
purchasing
power
of
money
(
PPM
)
is
the
analog
of
the
price
in
other
markets
.
Since
this
is
the
case
,
should
not
there
be
a
definite
meaning
and
measurement
of
the
PPM
in
order
that
we
be
able
to
sum
the
individual
demands
for
,
and
supplies
of
money
in
order
to
arrive
at
“
the
aggregate
demand
and
supply
of
money
”?
This
leads
to
circular
reasoning
because
“
the
aggregate
demand
and
supply
of
money
”
are
themselves
necessities
if
we
are
to
be
able
to
determine
from
their
interaction
the
specific
PPM
at
any
point
in
time
.
Curott
wants
to
sum
,
at
various
PPMs
,
the
individual
demands
and
supplies
of
money
in
order
to
obtain
the
aggregate
supply
and
demand
of
and
for
money
.
However
,
the
PPM
is
determined
by
the
very
same
aggregate
supply
and
demand
of
and
for
money
.
This
is
,
of
course
,
circular
reasoning
.
That
is
,
Curott
must
first
know
the
aggregate
supply
and
demand
of
and
for
money
in
order
to
reach
the
PPM
.
But
to
get
there
he
must
first
be
able
to
sum
the
individual
demands
and
supplies
for
money
at
various
PPMs
.
Alternatively
,
Curott
needs
the
PPMs
to
get
from
the
individual
demands
and
supplies
for
money
to
the
aggregate
demands
and
supplies
for
money
,
but
the
aggregate
demands
and
supplies
for
money
determine
the
PPM
.
Next
,
Curott
opines
:
“
In
a
static
equilibrium
,
or
,
if
one
prefers
,
in
the
‘
evenly
rotating
economy
,’
the
purchasing
power
of
the
money
commodity
is
subject
to
the
law
of
one
price
”
(
p
.
13
).
We
note
that
in
an
ERE
there
is
no
uncertainty
in
the
Knightian
sense
of
the
word
,
i
.
e
.,
in
an
uncertain
world
the
future
is
not
only
unknown
,
it
is
unknowable
(
Lachmann
,
1976
,
1986
).
And
people
know
that
they
don
’
t
know
.
Moreover
,
there
is
no
risk
in
the
probability
calculus
sense
of
the
word
.
Absent
uncertainty
and
risk
,
money
serves
no
purpose
that
some
other
asset
does
not
better
serve
,
and
therefore
there
would
be
no
money
.
So
Curott
’
s
point
about
the
purchasing
power
of
money
in
the
ERE
is
meaningless
as
there
would
be
no
money
under
that
assumption
.
(
And
so
,
a
fortiori
,
money
would
not
be
subject
to
the
law
of
one
price
or
of
one
purchasing
power
or
of
one
anything
else
,
except
nonexistence
.)
In
his
Note
4
Curott
states
:
“
Perhaps
the
‘
law
of
one
price
’
should
instead
be
called
the
‘
law
of
one
purchasing
power
’
in
order
to
avoid
confusion
when
it
comes
to
money
.
Money
has
many
prices
,
but
only
one
purchasing
power
,
meaning
the
ratios
of
all
these
other
prices
are
fixed
by
supply
and
demand
.”
We
cannot
see
our
way
clear
to
agreeing
with
Curott
on
this
point
.
For
money
has
many
purchasing
powers
,
as
we
have
taken
great
pains
to
point
out
,
in
Barnett
and
Block
(
2009
,
2010
),
and
now
,
again
,
in
the
present
paper
.
But
Curott
is
having
none
of
this
.
He
states
:
“
All
of
the
different
price
ratios
for
a
unit
of
money
in
terms
of
how
much
of
each
other
good
it
can
buy
must
have
the
same
purchasing
power
because
inequalities
are
arbitraged
away
”
(
p
.
13
).
Let
us
see
if
we
understand
him
correctly
.
He
mentions
“
all
of
the
different
price
ratios
for
a
unit
of
money
in
terms
of
how
much
of
each
other
good
it
can
buy
…
.”
Thus
if
there
are
two
goods
X
and
Y
,
the
price
ratios
thereof
are
so
many
units
of
X
and
Y
,
respectively
,
per
dollar
,
e
.
g
.,
2X
/$
1
and
3Y
/$
1
.
Then
he
says
that
these
ratios
“
…
must
have
the
same
purchasing
power
because
inequalities
are
arbitraged
away
.”
That
may
be
true
re
relatively
large
stocks
of
homogeneous
goods
,
but
it
is
certainly
not
true
insofar
as
very
limited
stocks
of
heterogeneous
goods
are
concerned
.
Let
us
ignore
all
of
the
other
__________________________________________________________________
Laissez-Faire
20
|
|